Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "p...

Words are pronounced the way that they're pronounced.

What's (not “whats”) the rule?

You'll usually find your answer there.

Why do Democrats look like snowflakes and Republicans look like Vikings?

Whence the <ea> I cannot say but some other words that were spelled <ai> in French are spelled <ea> in English: aise → ease, graisse → grease, fait → feat.

While you may reasonably ask why words are spelled the way they're spelled, it makes no sense to ask why they're pronounced the way they're pronounced.

Back in the day (circa 1300), it was written <plesen>.

Does the interpretation of the Book of בראשית create in all generations the Chosen Cohen People יש מאין?

Pleas is spelled <pleas> because it's the plural of pleas.

There's no rule.

Please is an anglicization of the French word plaisir.

I told my 13-year-old daughter that she should never start a fight, but has my permission to end it. She got suspended for ending a fight that some other girl picked with her by hitting her then retreating. How do I handle the school’s response?

If you're curious about why a word is spelled the way it's spelled, your first recourse should be etymonline dot com.

Whats the rule that makes "please" pronounced the same as "pleas"?

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